First off, we do believe in Jesus. We call Him Yeshua, which is His Hebrew name. Yeshua was a Jewish rabbi, who observed the Torah in its entirety. In fact, Paul tells us that Yeshua is the very image of God Himself. John tells us that Yeshua is the Torah made flesh.
Moses said that there was a prophet who would come who would be like him (Moses). John the Baptist asked, "is He the Prophet?"
There are some obvious parallels between Yeshua and Moses;
- Both had an immediate family member named Miriam (Moses' sister, and Jesus' mother; Mary in Hebrew is Miriam).
- Both were the only boys under the age of two who were spared when all of the male children under two were murdered; in an attempt to kill the newly born "deliverer".
- Both were born during a time of national bondage.
- Both had miracles to validate their ministries
- Both were set up as authorities of the Torah.
- Both act as a mediator between God and man.
- Both had to die before Israel could be redeemed
We know that Yeshua was without sin. This is where some difficulty comes into the conversation; what is sin? The answer that is commonly given, and the one that I used to give myself is that "sin is missing the mark". This is true. The Greek word for sin is an archery term for missing the mark. This doesn't answer the question though, it merely asks the same one again: what is the mark?
Another common answer that i used to give was, "Sinning is doing something that is contrary to what God wants you to do". This is also true, but demands the question; what does God want you to do?
Lets back up a little...
We all know that Jesus was sin-free. If Jesus was not sin-free, He could not have been our deliverer. The fact that He died for our sins, yet committed none Himself is the most humbling part of being a Christian! But, we need to ask the obvious question; by what standard was He sin-free? We all know this basic fact, but do we understand what it truly means to be "without sin"? The generic answer is that He never broke any of God's laws; and this is true... which laws though? We can find the answer in 1 John 3:4: Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
So, sin, by the biblical definition is the transgression of the law. What law though? This is where you need to do a little digging on your own. Don't take my word for it, but the law that John is referring to here is the Torah itself. Remember Paul told us that the purpose of the Law was to point out sin? Jesus then had to obey the Torah in its entirety in order to be a sin-free sacrifice.
Don't let the word Torah be a stumbling block here. In the "New Testament" the Torah is frequently referred to as the Law. In our society, the law is a negative word. In the bible, the Law (generally) is used for the word Torah, which literally means instruction. Doesn't that take on a whole new light when we realize that sinning is simply going against God's instruction? That sounds almost like the standard Christian definition of sin, doesn't it? Let me throw a wrench in that definition...
What is God's instruction? If sinning is going contrary to God's instruction, then what exactly is His instruction? Ask any Jew, and he will tell you, "Gods instruction is God's Torah". It is that simple. The fact that we call it "the law" doesn't stop it from being what it truly is, which is His instruction. All of God's people want to follow God's instruction, don't we? It might shock you, if you are a Christian who does not observe Torah to, to learn that you are already observing most of it! You aren't out killing people, steeling, or lying, are you? These are part of that same Torah (instruction), and most Christians don't have a problem with it. Why do we follow some laws and not the others? The first thing that comes to mind is the teaching that there is a "Moral Law, a Ceremonial Law, and a Civil Law". The problem with this is that the bible never catagorizes the laws like this. All of the Torah is Given by God - Paul said in Romans that if we break one, then we have broken them all, because the same God gave them all.
A common explanation for not observing the Sabbath, or the diatary laws id that "they were given to the Jews". Meditate on that answer for a few minutes...
Now, ask yourself the obvious question, which is, "who were all of the other laws given to?" The answer of course is "The Jews". If we throw out certain laws on the basis that they were gioven to the Jews, then where do we draw the line? Evidently, God never did draw a line. A prime example of this fact is the commandment to honor your mother and father. We all, as Christians, know that this is a law for us - it is obvious. It was given to the Jews, and yet Christians know it was given to us as well, Jesus Himself quoting it in Matthew 15:4 (there are many more places it shows up in the New Testament).
Now, break out your bible and turn to Leviticus 19:3 (or just click on it). Read that sentence carefully:
| Ye shall fear every man his mother, and his father, and keep my Sabbaths: I [am] the LORD your God. |
Now, I have a question: Who has the authority on this earth to take what God Himself says in this sentence, and separate the two by saying one is a "Moral Law", and given to us all, while the other is a "Ceremonial Law" given to the Jews? Is He the Lord your God? My guess, if you have read this far is yes, and if you know that He alone is God, then you more than likely know that He is never changing, so I will leave it to you to contemplate the implications of this statement by our Creator.
Remember what Paul said : There is now no Jew or Gentile - God is not a respecter of persons. The Jews were to be a light unto the nations... what light were they supposed to be shining? The answer is His light, of course. They were to show, by example, how our Creator wants his creation to behave. Take note that God never told them to hide the "Jewish part" of His light.
Contrary to popular belief, Jesus is still a Jew. I know this because in order for Him to rule as King, from Jerusalem from King David's throne, he must be one "from among their tribes"; and He is (from the Tribe of Judah!). He would be breaking the Law if He were to act as king, and not be a Jew - He will be breaking the law if, when He sits as King on that throne, He does not write His own copy of the Torah, and live by it - studying it every day and night! Think about that. If He has to follow Torah as King, then what law, as subjects of the King, are we required to follow? Simple; the same law that the King has to follow. This is true in our own culture as well. We all expect our leaders to be subject to the same law that we re, right? We know that Jesus came as a servant; do you honestly think that He would place himself above the very law that He represents?
...I don't either.
I will get into that a little more later though; I have to get to work now!
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